In Proposition 45, George Peters states:
“The phrases ‘Kingdom of heaven,’ ‘Kingdom of God,’ ‘Kingdom of Christ’, etc., denote the same Kingdom.”
This proposition is a restatement of earlier propositions from Peters. It seems necessary at this juncture in his argument to reiterate this fact given he has not proceeded to investigate the message presented by Jesus and his disciples. There is not a variety of kingdoms being presented due to a variety of descriptions. It is one and the same kingdom being discussed regardless of whether it is noted as being of heaven, God, or Christ. Same construct applies to all phrases.
The most notable observation Peters presents in Proposition 45 is the following:
“Now attention is called to the fact that they are used as synonymous in the New Testament. What Matthew pronounces “the Kingdom of Heaven,” is said by Mark, Luke, and John to be “the Kingdom of God,” as e.g. comparing Matthew 5:3 with Luke 6:20, and Matthew 13:11 with Mark 4:11. So also “the Kingdom of God” is designated as Christ’s Kingdom, as e.g. comparing Matthew 16:28 with Luke 9:27, Mark 9:1, etc.”
I have often wondered if different phraseology had something to do with the audience for these gospels. For instance, if Matthew is asserted to be the written to the Jewish people, does that reality have any connection with him using “Kingdom of heaven” as opposed to “Kingdom of God” or “Kingdom of Christ”? Maybe this is something I will have to look into. Perhaps there is no connection. Regardless, the various phrases used in the New Testament all speak to the same kingdom.